PSV Eindhoven attacker Xavi Simons has been linked with a move to the Premier League at the end of the season.
A report from Fichajes.net claims that Arsenal, Chelsea, and Manchester United are keeping tabs on the PSV Eindhoven star and they could look to make a move at the end of the season.
The 19-year-old has a contract with the Dutch outfit until the summer of 2027 and he could prove to be a superb acquisition for all three clubs.
Simons can operate as a central attacking midfielder as well as a winger on either flank. He will add creativity, flair, and goals to the side. The 19-year-old has 15 goals and 8 assists to his name across all competitions this season.
Arsenal could definitely use someone like him on their side so that Mikel Arteta can rotate key players like Gabriel Martinelli, Bukayo Saka, and Martin Odegaard. The Gunners will need a deeper spot to compete on all fronts next season.
Meanwhile, Chelsea need to add more goals to their side and the 19-year-old Dutchman would be a superb long-term signing.
As for Manchester United, they have been overly reliant on Marcus Rashford for goals this season. Erik ten Hag needs to add goals and creativity to his midfield and the 19-year-old seems like an ideal fit.
However, he has a long-term contract with the Dutch outfit and PSV could demand a premium for his services.
The 19-year-old has all the attributes to develop into a world-class player in the near future and a move to the Premier League could help accelerate his development. Coaches like Graham Potter, Mikel Arteta, and Erik ten Hag have done well to nurture talented young players throughout their managerial careers and they could play a key role in the development of Simons.
Click Here to Read the Full Original Article at Transfer Rumours – CaughtOffside…